1. Do the two xeroxed essays offer competing definitions of the fetish or complementary ones? Is there a relationship between trauma and the displacement of value?
2. I want to look at a footnote at the end of section 1 of "The Sexual Aberrations" on pg. 15. Are there any wider implications for Freud's belief that moderns are distinguished from ancients in believing that the sexual object must be a good object rather than the sexual object being good because it is a sexual object? How did this change occur? Why would Freud put it in a footnote instead of the body of the text?
3. What are the two "sources" of the infant sexual aim? Does Freud think pleasure works from the inside out or the outside in during infancy? Does this change as the individual ages?
4. If the fetish is the wrong sexual object, what is the wrong sexual aim? Why don't we have a word for the "dangerous" fore-pleasure that undoes end-pleasure? Can you imagine any implications of Freud's fore-pleasure in economic exchange?
---Andrew
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